19. Your patient is a 51 year old female physician who present complaining of bilateral leg weakness and urinary incontinence. Her vital signs are as follows BP-120/78, HR, 86, RR-16, Temp-96.7. Her husband who accompanied her to the Emergency Room relays she has had a lot of trouble walking today. She has no visual disturbance. It is a slow day and your were able to get MRI's of her brain, cervical spine, thoracic spine, and lumbar spine with and without contrast that were read as negative. You also get a laboratory workup that reveals normal CBC, BMP, and Hepatic Panel and Thyroid studies. The only recent illness is an acute diarrheal illness 2-3 weeks ago. Given this information, what is the best management option?
A. Discharge the patient home with close follow up with primary care physician. There is no further studies that can be done to determine the etiology of the patients symptoms.
B. Have psychiatry assess the patient for possible conversion disorder
C. Offer the patient a lumbar puncture
D. Start the patient on glucocorticoids
No comments:
Post a Comment